Hebrews 7:11 in Waorani
11 Wængonguï doyedë angä ëñëninque Debiidi pancadäniya, Wængonguï quï, ante në godönäni bagadänimpa. Ayæ̈ Wængonguï, Ïïmaï cæedäni, ante angä ëñente yewæ̈möninque Debiidi wæætë wadäni ïnänite odömonte apæ̈nedäni ëñengadänimpa. Incæte Debiidi, Wængonguï quï, ante näni godönö beyænque mönö Wængonguï ayongä mönö ædæmö pædäni baï edæ dicæ entawente bamongaa. Ïñæmpa mänïnäni näni godönö beyænque në picæ̈näni baï bamö baï ñöwo wacä në Godongä ingante Wængonguï da pönönämaï incædongäimpa. Ayæ̈, Wængonguï quï, ante në Pönongä incæcäimpa, ante Codito ingante da pönöninque Wængonguï, Debii wodi pæ̈ingä Aadöö nänö pönongaï baï Codito adobaï pönoncæcäimpa, ante änämaï inte wæætë, Mëequitedeco nänö pönongaï baï cædinque Codito pönongä beyænque waodäni botö ayömö në nö cædäni bacædänimpa, angacäimpa.
Other Translations
King James Version (KJV)
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
American Standard Version (ASV)
Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need `was there' that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
Bible in Basic English (BBE)
Now if it was possible for things to be made complete through the priests of the house of Levi (for the law was given to the people in connection with them), what need was there for another priest who was of the order of Melchizedek and not of the order of Aaron?
Darby English Bible (DBY)
If indeed then perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, for the people had their law given to them in connexion with *it*, what need [was there] still that a different priest should arise according to the order of Melchisedec, and not be named after the order of Aaron?
World English Bible (WEB)
Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
Young's Literal Translation (YLT)
If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?