Hebrews 7:11 in Cubeo

11 Jʉ̃menijicʉ coyʉrejaquemavʉ ʉ̃i d̶aicõjeiyede Moisés bácʉre, Israecavʉ bácavʉ ne majinajiyepe ayʉ aipe d̶aiye jaʉrõre na mácavʉre, boropatebenajivʉre Jʉ̃menijicʉi jã́inoi. Que teni Jʉ̃menijicʉ epedejaquemavʉ Aarón mácʉre aru ʉ̃i pãramena mácavʉre, Leví bácʉi pãramenacavʉ bácavʉre, ne jínajiyepe ayʉ ʉ̃́re põeva ne jícaiyede ne ãmeina teiye boje. Ʉbenita ina sacerdoteva bácavʉ, Aarón mácʉjã, ñamene ye boropatebevʉ teni jebeni oabedejaquemavʉ. Que baru caiye iye Jʉ̃menijicʉi mearo d̶acaiyʉede põevare ye d̶abedejaquemavʉ Jʉ̃menijicʉ ina sacerdoteva bácavʉ, Aarón mácʉjãque. Ne boropatebevʉ teni jebedu põevare, apecʉ sacerdote ʉ̃i daiye jaʉbejebu. Ʉbenita apecʉ sacerdote, Aarón mácʉpe páyʉ ãmecʉ quénora Melquisedepe páyʉ, ʉ̃i daiye jaʉrejaquemavʉ, ʉ̃i boropatebevʉ teni jebequiyepe aiye põevare.

Other Translations

King James Version (KJV)

If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

American Standard Version (ASV)

Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need `was there' that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?

Bible in Basic English (BBE)

Now if it was possible for things to be made complete through the priests of the house of Levi (for the law was given to the people in connection with them), what need was there for another priest who was of the order of Melchizedek and not of the order of Aaron?

Darby English Bible (DBY)

If indeed then perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, for the people had their law given to them in connexion with *it*, what need [was there] still that a different priest should arise according to the order of Melchisedec, and not be named after the order of Aaron?

World English Bible (WEB)

Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it the people have received the law), what further need was there for another priest to arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

Young's Literal Translation (YLT)

If indeed, then, perfection were through the Levitical priesthood -- for the people under it had received law -- what further need, according to the order of Melchisedek, for another priest to arise, and not to be called according to the order of Aaron?